IAS Prelims 2024 – GS Paper-I (Question Paper)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024
General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions

This page contains the official GS Paper-I questions (English version only),
uploaded as part of the IAS Prelims 2026 Crash Course.
Questions are provided without answers for self-practice and analysis.

SET-D

Question 1
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Question 2
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

Konkani
Manipuri
Nepali
Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Question 3
Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 4
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IXA of the Constitution.
Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 5
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Question 6
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21

Question 7
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Question 8
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madad

Question 9
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Question 10
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 11
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Question 12
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 13
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara
(b) Natyashastra
(c) Madhyama Vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya

Question 14
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga
(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(d) Lalitavistara

Question 15
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

Shantiniketan
Rani-ki-Vav
Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 16
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition
Variation
Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 17
Consider the following countries:

Italy
Japan
Nigeria
South Korea
South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 5 only

Question 18
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Question 19
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

Army | Air Force | Navy

Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander
Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral
Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander
Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only

Question 20
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 21
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Question 22
Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this exercise.
Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Question 23
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Question 24
Consider the following statements:

It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 25
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 26
Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Question 27
Consider the following pairs:

Country | Reason for being in the news

Argentina | Worst economic crisis
Sudan | War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary
Turkey | Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Question 28
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Question 29
Consider the following statements:

The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 30
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Question 31
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 32
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 33
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
It is insured against inflation by its very design.
It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Question 34
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

Nayaputta
Shakyamuni
Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Question 35
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Question 36
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya
(b) Narasimha Saluva
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Question 37
With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the State on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 38
Consider the following statements:

There are no parables in Upanishads.
Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 39
Consider the following statements:

India is a member of the International Grains Council.
A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 40
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance
(b) Durga puja
(c) Garba dance
(d) Kumbh mela

Question 41
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 42
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of genetically modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 43
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:

He/She shall not preside.
He/She shall not have the right to speak.
He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 44
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
A Bill in regard to which the President of India has notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Question 45
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to proroguing a House which is in session.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Question 46
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 47
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 48
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
Under the scheme, cadastral maps are digitised.
An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognised by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 49
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, consider the following statements:

The scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters and six months post-delivery care.
Under the scheme, private sector healthcare providers of certain specialities can volunteer services at government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 50
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

The entry age group for enrolment is 21 to 40 years.
Age-specific contribution is made by the beneficiary.
Each subscriber receives a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years.
Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Question 51
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases are good absorbers of long-wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct?

Question 52
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater than at the poles.
Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct?

Question 53
Consider the following:

Pyroclastic debris
Ash and dust
Nitrogen compounds
Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 54
Which of the following are correct inferences from isothermal maps in January?

Isotherms deviate northwards over oceans and southwards over continents.
Cold ocean currents like the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic colder.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 55
Which of the following countries are the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(c) Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Question 56
With reference to Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from west to east, which sequence is correct?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

Question 57
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II: Rainwater contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III: Rainwater contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both II and III are correct and explain I
(b) Both II and III are correct, but only one explains I
(c) Only one of II and III is correct and explains I
(d) Neither II nor III is correct

Question 58
Consider the following countries:

Finland
Germany
Norway
Russia

How many of the above have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 59
Consider the following:

Waterfall | Region | River

Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada
Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha
Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati

In how many rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 60
Consider the following:

Region | Mountain range | Type

Central Europe | Vosges | Fold
Europe | Alps | Block
North America | Appalachians | Fold
South America | Andes | Fold

In how many rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 61
The organisms Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are:

(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles

Question 62
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 63
Consider the following pair:

Country | Animal found in its natural habitat

Brazil | Indri
Indonesia | Elk
Madagascar | Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Question 64
Consider the following statements regarding the World Toilet Organization:

It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are initiatives of this organization.
Its main focus is to grant funds to least developed and developing countries to end open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Question 65
Consider the following statements:

Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 66
Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

(a) A platform to accelerate transition to net-zero, nature-positive food and water systems and increase farmer resilience
(b) An international alliance supporting organic animal husbandry
(c) A blockchain-based fertilizer trading platform
(d) A platform encouraging Farmer Producer Organisations to access global markets

Question 67
Consider the following:

Battery storage
Biomass generators
Fuel cells
Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered Distributed Energy Resources?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 68
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has co-evolved with it and is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig
(b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood
(d) Silk cotton

Question 69
Consider the following:

Butterflies
Fish
Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Question 70
Consider the following:

Cashew
Papaya
Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Question 71
Consider the following airports:

Donyi Polo Airport
Kushinagar International Airport
Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 72
With reference to water vapour, consider the following statements:

It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 73
Consider the following description:

Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
Precipitation varies between 50 cm and 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate
(b) China-type climate
(c) Humid subtropical climate
(d) Marine West Coast climate

Question 74
With reference to Coriolis force, consider the following statements:

It increases with increase in wind velocity.
It is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 75
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) sunlight of more than 12 hours?

Equator
Tropic of Cancer
Tropic of Capricorn
Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Question 76
One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, holding about three years’ worth of global fossil-fuel carbon emissions. Which region is this?

(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikori Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Question 77
With reference to Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS), consider the following statements:

PFAS are found in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 78
Consider the following organisms:

Carabid beetles
Centipedes
Flies
Termites
Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Question 79
Consider the following plants:

Groundnut
Horse-gram
Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

Question 80
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct?

Question 81
The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year
(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population
(c) the birth rate minus death rate
(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age

Question 82
Consider the following statements:

In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold Government Securities (G-Secs).
In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Question 83
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

Insurance Companies
Pension Funds
Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 84
Consider the following:

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
Motor vehicles
Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Question 85
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Economic activity | Sector

Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary
Dairy farm | Primary
Mineral exploration | Tertiary
Weaving cloth | Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 86
Consider the following materials:

Agricultural residues
Corn grains
Wastewater treatment sludge
Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question 87
With reference to physical capital in the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Items | Category

Farmer’s plough | Working capital
Computer | Fixed capital
Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital
Petrol | Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Question 88
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote
“an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?

(a) Big data analytics
(b) Cryptography
(c) Metaverse
(d) Virtual matrix

Question 89
With reference to the rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly-owned banking subsidiaries in India.
For wholly-owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 90
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

CSR rules specify that expenditures benefiting the company directly or its employees will not be considered CSR activities.
CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 91
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
RTGs are used for powering onboard systems of spacecraft.
RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 92
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct?

Question 93
Which one of the following is synthesised in the human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Question 94
Consider the following activities:

Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
Monitoring of precipitation
Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can radars be used?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Question 95
Consider the following aircraft:

Rafale
MiG-29
Tejas Mk-1

How many of the above are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Question 96
In which of the following are hydrogels used?

Controlled drug delivery in patients
Mobile air-conditioning systems
Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Question 97
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water vapour

Question 98
Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is most appropriately discussed in the context of:

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long-duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting systems

Question 99
Membrane Bioreactors are often discussed in the context of:

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
(c) Vaccine production technologies
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Question 100
With reference to the Indian economy, Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations are instruments of:

(a) Bond market
(b) Forex market
(c) Money market
(d) Stock market

UPSC CSP 2024 – GS Paper-I

OFFICIAL ANSWER KEY (SET-D)

Consolidated Table (Q.1–100)

(0 = Question dropped / not evaluated by UPSC)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	D	26	D	51	D	76	B
2	A	27	B	52	A	77	D
3	B	28	A	53	D	78	B
4	D	29	C	54	A	79	C
5	C	30	D	55	C	80	X
6	D	31	A	56	B	81	D
7	D	32	X	57	A	82	C
8	C	33	D	58	B	83	D
9	A	34	B	59	A	84	D
10	C	35	B	60	B	85	B
11	D	36	A	61	C	86	C
12	A	37	X	62	A	87	B
13	C	38	B	63	D	88	C
14	C	39	A	64	A	89	D
15	B	40	C	65	A	90	A
16	D	41	A	66	A	91	B
17	A	42	D	67	D	92	D
18	C	43	A	68	A	93	A
19	D	44	B	69	C	94	B
20	A	45	C	70	A	95	B
21	C	46	C	71	A	96	A
22	D	47	D	72	A	97	D
23	C	48	D	73	D	98	C
24	B	49	B	74	C	99	D
25	C	50	B	75	D	100	D

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IAS Prelims 2024 – GS Paper-I (Question Paper)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024
General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions

SET-D

UPSC CSP 2024 – GS Paper-I

OFFICIAL ANSWER KEY (SET-D)

Consolidated Table (Q.1–100)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	D	26	D	51	D	76	B
2	A	27	B	52	A	77	D
3	B	28	A	53	D	78	B
4	D	29	C	54	A	79	C
5	C	30	D	55	C	80	X
6	D	31	A	56	B	81	D
7	D	32	X	57	A	82	C
8	C	33	D	58	B	83	D
9	A	34	B	59	A	84	D
10	C	35	B	60	B	85	B
11	D	36	A	61	C	86	C
12	A	37	X	62	A	87	B
13	C	38	B	63	D	88	C
14	C	39	A	64	A	89	D
15	B	40	C	65	A	90	A
16	D	41	A	66	A	91	B
17	A	42	D	67	D	92	D
18	C	43	A	68	A	93	A
19	D	44	B	69	C	94	B
20	A	45	C	70	A	95	B
21	C	46	C	71	A	96	A
22	D	47	D	72	A	97	D
23	C	48	D	73	D	98	C
24	B	49	B	74	C	99	D
25	C	50	B	75	D	100	D

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	D	26	D	51	D	76	B
2	A	27	B	52	A	77	D
3	B	28	A	53	D	78	B
4	D	29	C	54	A	79	C
5	C	30	D	55	C	80	X
6	D	31	A	56	B	81	D
7	D	32	X	57	A	82	C
8	C	33	D	58	B	83	D
9	A	34	B	59	A	84	D
10	C	35	B	60	B	85	B
11	D	36	A	61	C	86	C
12	A	37	X	62	A	87	B
13	C	38	B	63	D	88	C
14	C	39	A	64	A	89	D
15	B	40	C	65	A	90	A
16	D	41	A	66	A	91	B
17	A	42	D	67	D	92	D
18	C	43	A	68	A	93	A
19	D	44	B	69	C	94	B
20	A	45	C	70	A	95	B
21	C	46	C	71	A	96	A
22	D	47	D	72	A	97	D
23	C	48	D	73	D	98	C
24	B	49	B	74	C	99	D
25	C	50	B	75	D	100	D

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions

SET-D

UPSC CSP 2024 – GS Paper-I

OFFICIAL ANSWER KEY (SET-D)

Consolidated Table (Q.1–100)

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024
General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	D	26	D	51	D	76	B
2	A	27	B	52	A	77	D
3	B	28	A	53	D	78	B
4	D	29	C	54	A	79	C
5	C	30	D	55	C	80	X
6	D	31	A	56	B	81	D
7	D	32	X	57	A	82	C
8	C	33	D	58	B	83	D
9	A	34	B	59	A	84	D
10	C	35	B	60	B	85	B
11	D	36	A	61	C	86	C
12	A	37	X	62	A	87	B
13	C	38	B	63	D	88	C
14	C	39	A	64	A	89	D
15	B	40	C	65	A	90	A
16	D	41	A	66	A	91	B
17	A	42	D	67	D	92	D
18	C	43	A	68	A	93	A
19	D	44	B	69	C	94	B
20	A	45	C	70	A	95	B
21	C	46	C	71	A	96	A
22	D	47	D	72	A	97	D
23	C	48	D	73	D	98	C
24	B	49	B	74	C	99	D
25	C	50	B	75	D	100	D