IAS Prelims 2019 – GS Paper-I (Question Paper : SET-D)
UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2019
General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions
This page contains the official GS Paper-I questions (English version only),
uploaded as part of the IAS Prelims 2026 Crash Course.
Questions are provided without answers for self-practice and analysis.
Official Key Answers are given at the END. Explanatory Answers from IasGenius are available separately.
SET-D
Q.1
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
- AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
- India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
- AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2
What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
b) To support infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
c) To act as an independent regulator for loans of ₹50 crore or more
d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹50 crore or more under consortium lending
Q.3
The Chairperson of public sector banks is selected by the
a) Banks Board Bureau
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Union Ministry of Finance
d) Management of the concerned bank
Q.4
Consider the following statements:
- Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory board set up by the Government of India.
- One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
- Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
- LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
- LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.6
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
- Pregnant women are entitled to three months per-delivery paid leave.
- Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother a minimum of six crèche visits daily.
- Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.7
Which one of the following is NOT a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?
a) Maintenance of law and order
b) Paying taxes
c) Registering property
d) Dealing with construction permits
Q.8
In India, ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
a) Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
b) Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
c) E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
d) Food Safety and Standards Regulations, 2011
Q.9
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
a) transportation cost only
b) interest cost only
c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
d) procurement incidentals and godown charges
Q.10
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
a) Proportion of literates in the population
b) Stock of buildings, infrastructure and machines
c) Size of the working-age population
d) Level of mutual trust and harmony in society
Q.11
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
b) Lead Bank Scheme
c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
d) National Skill Development Mission
Q.12
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
- Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to prevailing law.
- State Governments grant mining leases of minor minerals, but rule-making powers lie with the Central Government.
- State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.13
Consider the following statements:
- Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
- All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14
Which of the following is NOT included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
a) Advances
b) Deposits
c) Investments
d) Money at call and short notice
Q.15
In the context of India, which of the following factors contribute to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
- Foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
- Increase in government expenditure
- Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.16
Which one of the following recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should not have taken part in active politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
b) Rajamannar Committee
c) Sarkaria Commission
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
Q.17
Which of the following is issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian stock markets without direct registration?
a) Certificate of Deposit
b) Commercial Paper
c) Promissory Note
d) Participatory Note
Q.18
Consider the following statements:
- As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
- People’s participation is mandatory in compensatory afforestation programmes under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19
In India, which of the following are independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance and electricity?
- Ad-hoc committees set up by Parliament
- Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committees
- Finance Commission
- Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
- NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 4 and 5
d) 2 and 5
Q.20
With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, consider the following statements:
- From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a thrust towards substitution of basic and capital goods industries.
- The Fourth Five-Year Plan aimed at correcting the trend of increased concentration of wealth.
- In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, the financial sector was included for the first time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.21
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- No High Court shall have jurisdiction to declare any Central law unconstitutional.
- An amendment to the Constitution cannot be questioned in the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.22
Consider the following statements:
- Purchasing Power Parity exchange rates are calculated by comparing the price of the same basket of goods and services across countries.
- In PPP terms, India is the sixth-largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.23
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
- Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
- Area under jowar cultivation is more than that of oilseeds.
- Area under cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
- Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.24
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
a) Spices
b) Fresh fruits
c) Pulses
d) Vegetable oils
Q.25
In the context of polity, which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of liberty?
a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
b) Absence of restraint
c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Q.26
Which of the following is NOT the most likely measure that the Government of India or the RBI would take to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?
a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds
c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowings
d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Q.27
Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s directives on ‘Storage of Payment System Data’ (Data Diktat):
- Payment system providers shall ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems are stored only in India.
- The systems shall be owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
- Consolidated system audit reports shall be submitted to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.28
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ (GDPR) in April 2016 and implemented it from 25 May 2018?
a) Australia
b) Canada
c) European Union
d) United States of America
Q.29
Recently, India signed the ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
a) Japan
b) Russia
c) United Kingdom
d) United States of America
Q.30
The money multiplier in an economy increases with
a) an increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio
b) an increase in the banking habit of the population
c) an increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
d) an increase in the population of the country
Q.31
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for identifying PVTGs.
- There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country.
- Thular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.32
With reference to Article 142 of the Constitution of India, ordinary laws cannot act as limitations on constitutional powers. This implies that
a) decisions of the Election Commission cannot be challenged in courts
b) the Supreme Court is not constrained by laws made by Parliament while exercising its powers
c) the President can declare Financial Emergency without Cabinet advice
d) State Legislatures cannot legislate without Union concurrence
Q.33
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
- The Governor addresses the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- In the absence of specific rules, the State Legislature follows Lok Sabha rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.34
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Conventions:
- UNCAC has a Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants.
- UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
- Asset recovery is a special feature of UNTOC.
- UNODC assists in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.35
Consider the following statements:
- As per the amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers can fell bamboo grown in forest areas.
- Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
- The Forest Rights Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.36
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards the right to marry a person of one’s choice?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 29
Q.37
Consider the following statements:
- Biological processes to create seeds can be patented in India.
- India has no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
- Plant varieties are not patentable in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.38
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
- prescribe public participation procedures in environmental protection
- lay down standards for emission or discharge of pollutants
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.39
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Waste must be segregated into five categories
b) Rules apply only to notified urban local bodies
c) Criteria for landfill site identification are clearly specified
d) Waste cannot be transported across districts
Q.40
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018, consider the following statements:
- Fixed-term employment makes it easier for firms to lay off workers.
- No notice of termination is required for fixed-term workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.41
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
- Augmented Reality creates a fully simulated environment.
- Virtual Reality overlays digital images onto real-world objects.
- Augmented Reality enhances real-world experience using devices.
- Virtual Reality provides complete immersion by shutting out the real world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 4 only
Q.42
The term ‘Denisovan’ refers to
a) dinosaur fossils
b) an early human species
c) cave systems in India
d) a geological period
Q.43
With reference to recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) Functional chromosomes can be created using DNA from different species
b) Artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories
c) DNA extracted from cells can replicate outside living cells
d) Plant and animal cells can divide in laboratory conditions
Q.44
A digital signature is
- an electronic record identifying the certifying authority
- proof of identity for accessing online services
- an electronic method ensuring document integrity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.45
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks can be performed?
- Location tracking
- Sleep monitoring
- Assisting hearing-impaired persons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.46
‘RNA Interference (RNAi)’ technology is significant because
- it enables gene-silencing therapies
- it can be used in cancer treatment
- it enables hormone replacement therapies
- it helps develop virus-resistant crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only
Q.47
The observation of the merger of giant black holes is significant because
a) Higgs boson particles were detected
b) gravitational waves were detected
c) inter-galactic travel was confirmed
d) singularity was fully understood
Q.48
Which of the following are reasons for multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
- Incorrect antibiotic dosage
- Antibiotic use in livestock farming
- Genetic predisposition of people
- Presence of multiple chronic diseases
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.49
Cas9 protein is
a) a molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
b) a biosensor for pathogen detection
c) a gene imparting pest resistance
d) a herbicidal substance
Q.50
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) Hepatitis B is transmitted similarly to HIV
b) Hepatitis B has no vaccine unlike Hepatitis C
c) Hepatitis B and C infections exceed HIV globally
d) Some Hepatitis infections remain asymptomatic for years
Q.51
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
- Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
- Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.52
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holding.
b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Q.53
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
a) International Monetary Fund
b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
c) World Economic Forum
d) World Bank
Q.54
Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1813:
- It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
- The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.55
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
- It contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
- The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.56
Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization — Leader
- All India Anti-Untouchability League — Mahatma Gandhi
- All India Kisan Sabha — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
- Self-Respect Movement — E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.57
Which one of the following is NOT a Harappan site?
a) Chanhudaro
b) Kot Diji
c) Sohgaura
d) Desalpur
Q.58
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
a) Kanganahalli
b) Sanchi
c) Shahbazgarhi
d) Sohgaura
Q.59
Consider the following:
- Deification of the Buddha
- Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
- Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are features of Mahayana Buddhism?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.60
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
d) The eldest son of the labourers was sent as the forced labourer.
Q.61
Which of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
Q.62
Consider the following statements:
- Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
- Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
- One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.63
Consider the following pairs:
Famous Place — River
- Pandharpur — Chandrabhaga
- Tiruchirappalli — Cauvery
- Hampi — Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.64
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
a) poverty rates vary from State to State
b) price levels vary from State to State
c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State
Q.65
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?
a) Creating artificial rains in some regions
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d) Reducing global warming
Q.66
In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis’ and ‘plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a) Extraction of rare earth elements
b) Natural gas extraction technologies
c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Q.67
Which of the following are in the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Q.68
Consider the following statements:
- Some species of turtles are herbivores.
- Some species of fish are herbivores.
- Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
- Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.69
Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife — Naturally found in
- Blue-finned Mahseer — Cauvery River
- Irrawaddy Dolphin — Chambal River
- Rusty-spotted Cat — Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.70
Why is there great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
d) They are often used as food adulterants.
Q.71
Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
a) Chalukya
b) Chandela
c) Rashtrakuta
d) Vijayanagara
Q.72
Consider the following statements:
- In the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
- The Iqta system of the Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
- The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of the Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.73
Consider the following statements:
- Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
- Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.74
With reference to British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
- Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
- In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
- Consequent upon breaking the Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.75
With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person — Position held
- Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru — President, All India Liberal Federation
- K. C. Neogy — Member, the Constituent Assembly
- P. C. Joshi — General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.76
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
d) Tansen invented many ragas.
Q.77
Who among the following Mughal emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
a) Humayun
b) Akbar
c) Jahangir
d) Shah Jahan
Q.78
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate-alpine zone?
a) Manas National Park
b) Namdapha National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
Q.79
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
a) Department of Science and Technology
b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
c) NITI Aayog
d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Q.80
On 21st June, the Sun
a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
b) does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle
c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Q.81
Consider the following statements:
- Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
- Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
- Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.82
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangasabati?
a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
b) Tropical rain forests
c) Underground cave systems
d) Water reservoirs
Q.83
In the context of proposals to use hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
- The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
- H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
- Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
- H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.84
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
c) The Earth’s surface has low temperature on cloudy nights.
d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Q.85
Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.86
Consider the following statements:
- The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The Constitution of India defines what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the impeachment process of Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion is taken up for voting, it must be supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.87
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai
Q.88
Consider the following statements:
- Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
- Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
- India is now self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.89
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.90
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule
Q.91
Recently, there was growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
a) anti-malarial drug
b) biodiesel
c) pulp for paper industry
d) textile fibre
Q.92
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
- Chlorophyll content in vegetation of a specific location
- Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
- Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.93
Consider the following States:
- Chhattisgarh
- Madhya Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
In terms of percentage of forest cover to total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
a) 2-3-1-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-2-4-1
d) 3-2-1-4
Q.94
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
- Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
- Large deposits of methane hydrate are found in Arctic tundra and under the seafloor.
- Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.95
Consider the following:
- Carbon monoxide
- Methane
- Ozone
- Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to burning of crop/biomass residue?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.96
Consider the following pairs:
Sea — Bordering country
- Adriatic Sea — Albania
- Black Sea — Croatia
- Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan
- Mediterranean Sea — Morocco
- Red Sea — Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.97
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
a) China
b) India
c) Myanmar
d) Vietnam
Q.98
Consider the following pairs:
Glacier — River
- Bandarpunch — Yamuna
- Bara Shigri — Chenab
- Milam — Mandakini
- Siachen — Nubra
- Zemu — Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 5
d) 3 and 5
Q.99
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
a) pesticides in agriculture
b) preservatives in processed foods
c) fruit-ripening agents
d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
Q.100
Consider the following statements:
- Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory for the Government of India to protect and conserve all wetlands in India.
- The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed based on recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
- The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass drainage area/catchment regions of wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC CSE Prelims 2019 – GS Paper I SET-D
UPSC : Official Answer Key
| Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A | 26 | D | 51 | D | 76 | A |
| 2 | D | 27 | A | 52 | B | 77 | C |
| 3 | A | 28 | C | 53 | C | 78 | D |
| 4 | B | 29 | B | 54 | A | 79 | C |
| 5 | D | 30 | B | 55 | C | 80 | A |
| 6 | C | 31 | C | 56 | D | 81 | D |
| 7 | A | 32 | B | 57 | C | 82 | D |
| 8 | C | 33 | C | 58 | A | 83 | B |
| 9 | C | 34 | C | 59 | D | 84 | B |
| 10 | D | 35 | B | 60 | A | 85 | B |
| 11 | B | 36 | B | 61 | A | 86 | C |
| 12 | A | 37 | C | 62 | A | 87 | A |
| 13 | D | 38 | B | 63 | A | 88 | A |
| 14 | B | 39 | C | 64 | B | 89 | A |
| 15 | B | 40 | C | 65 | D | 90 | B |
| 16 | C | 41 | B | 66 | D | 91 | D |
| 17 | D | 42 | B | 67 | A | 92 | D |
| 18 | A | 43 | A | 68 | D | 93 | C |
| 19 | A | 44 | C | 69 | C | 94 | D |
| 20 | A | 45 | D | 70 | A | 95 | D |
| 21 | D | 46 | A | 71 | D | 96 | B |
| 22 | A | 47 | B | 72 | A | 97 | B |
| 23 | A | 48 | B | 73 | D | 98 | A |
| 24 | D | 49 | A | 74 | B | 99 | A |
| 25 | D | 50 | B | 75 | D | 100 | C |