IAS Prelims 2018 – GS Paper-I (Question Paper-SET A)
UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2018
General Studies Paper-I – Previous Year Questions
This page contains the official GS Paper-I questions (English version only),
uploaded as part of the IAS Prelims 2026 Crash Course.
Questions are provided without answers for self-practice and analysis.
Official Key Answers are given at the END. Explanatory Answers from IasGenius are available separately.
SET-A
Q.1
Consider the following statements:
- In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2
Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3
As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
- Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
- In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.4
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
- The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
- The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in higher courts, whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.5
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.6
Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in the news?
(a) Incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting debit card payments
(b) Amount paid back by banks to customers using debit cards
(c) Charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments through debit cards
(d) Incentive given by the Government for promoting digital payments
Q.7
What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
- It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
- It automatically becomes a member of the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.8
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalisation tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
- Non-resident entities can claim tax credit under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.9
Consider the following statements:
- The FRBM Review Committee recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the combined government.
- The Central Government has higher domestic liabilities than the State Governments.
- As per the Constitution, States must take Centre’s consent for raising loans if they owe liabilities to the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.10
Consider the following statements:
- The quantity of imported edible oils is more than domestic production in the last five years.
- The Government does not impose customs duty on all imported edible oils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.11
He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna; stayed in America; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Q.12
Consider the following statements:
- Aadhaar card can be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, an Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.13
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely or dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
- Aral Sea
- Black Sea
- Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Q.14
“Rule of Law Index” is released by
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) UN Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Q.15
Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
(a) Indian Banks’ Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Q.16
Consider the following statements:
- Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount banks maintain to offset potential losses.
- CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.17
The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open Application Programming Interfaces (APIs). What does this imply?
- It can be integrated into any electronic device.
- Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people suffered severe famine or died due to starvation caused by war or ethnic conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Q.19
Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
- Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
- Establishment of universities was recommended.
- English as medium of instruction at all levels was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.20
Which Parliamentary Committee scrutinises whether delegated legislation is properly exercised by the Executive?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Q.21
Consider the following statements:
- RTE Act requires minimum qualifications prescribed by State Councils.
- Passing Teacher Eligibility Test is mandatory for primary teachers.
- More than 90% of teacher education institutions are under State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.22
Consider the following pairs:
Tradition — State
- Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
- Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
- Thong-To dance — Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Q.23
Consider the following statements:
- Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- FSSAI functions under the Director General of Health Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.24
The term “two-state solution” is often mentioned in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Q.25
With reference to the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
- Only BPL families are eligible for subsidised grains.
- The eldest woman (18+) shall be the head of the household for ration card issuance.
- Pregnant and lactating women are entitled to 1600 calories per day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.26
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Q.27
Consider the following statements:
- In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
- Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
- Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q.28
With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
- BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
- While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.29
Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Q.30
International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Q.31
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to taxation.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with regulation of borrowing or giving of guarantees by the Government of India.
Q.32
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.33
In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
(a) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) Military nuclear installations come under IAEA inspection.
(c) The country gains automatic access to NSG uranium.
(d) The country becomes a member of the NSG.
Q.34
Consider the following countries:
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Q.35
With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, consider the following statements:
- GACSA is an outcome of the Paris Climate Summit, 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.36
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan?
- Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China
- Encouraging MNCs to set up Big Data centres within India
- Connecting villages, schools, public places and tourist centres with Internet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.37
Consider the following pairs:
Town mentioned in news — Country
- Aleppo — Syria
- Kirkuk — Yemen
- Mosul — Palestine
- Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Q.38
In the federation established by the Government of India Act, 1935, residuary powers were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor-General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Q.39
Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of a Legislative Assembly shall vacate office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) More laws mean less liberty
(b) Absence of law means absence of liberty
(c) Liberty requires laws made by people
(d) Frequent change of laws endangers liberty
Q.41
Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceedings can be instituted against the Governor during his term.
- The emoluments of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.42
The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the
(a) Bundi school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Q.43
What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”?
(a) Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) American anti-missile system
(d) Japan–South Korea defence collaboration
Q.44
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
- Most Tyagaraja kritis praise Lord Krishna.
- Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
- Annamacharya and Tyagaraja were contemporaries.
- Annamacharya kirtanas praise Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.45
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
- Limitation of powers
- Equality before law
- People’s responsibility to government
- Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.46
Which one of the following best describes legal tender money?
(a) Money tendered in courts
(b) Money that must be accepted in settlement of debts
(c) Cheques and drafts
(d) Metallic money only
Q.47
If a commodity is provided free by the Government, then
(a) Opportunity cost is zero
(b) Opportunity cost is ignored
(c) Opportunity cost is transferred to taxpayers
(d) Opportunity cost is borne by the Government
Q.48
Increase in real GNP may not reflect development if
(a) Industrial output lags
(b) Agricultural output lags
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase
(d) Imports grow faster than exports
Q.49
Human capital formation enables
- Accumulation of more physical capital
- Increase in knowledge and skills
- Accumulation of tangible wealth
- Accumulation of intangible wealth
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.50
Despite high savings, capital formation may not raise output due to
(a) Weak administration
(b) Illiteracy
(c) High population density
(d) High capital-output ratio
Q.51) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.52) Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
d) rapid increase in the urban population
Q.53) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
c) Article 19 is suspended in that State
d) the President can make laws relating to that State
Q.54) Consider the following pairs:
Craft — Heritage of
- Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
- Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
- Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Q.55) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
- Mobile phone operations
- Banking operations
- Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.56) Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.57) Consider the following statements:
- The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
- When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
- When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.58) The terms ‘Wanna Cry’, ‘Petya’ and ‘Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news are related to
a) Exo-planets
b) Cryptocurrency
c) Cyber attacks
d) Mini satellites
Q.59) With reference to Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under Conservation Agriculture?
- Avoiding monoculture practices
- Adopting minimum tillage
- Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
- Using crop residues to cover soil surface
- Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Q.60) The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
a) monoculture practices in agriculture
b) meteorite collision with Earth
c) large-scale GM crop cultivation
d) over-exploitation of natural resources and climate change
Q.61) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
- IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
- IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 km beyond its borders.
- India will have full global navigation coverage by mid-2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
Q.62) Consider the following phenomena:
- Light is affected by gravity
- The universe is constantly expanding
- Matter warps surrounding space-time
Which of the above are predictions of Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.63) With reference to genetically modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
- GM mustard has genes of a soil bacterium for pest resistance.
- GM mustard has genes allowing cross-pollination and hybridization.
- GM mustard was jointly developed by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.64) Consider the following pairs:
Term — Context
- Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence
- Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency
- CRISPR-Cas9 — Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.65) Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?
a) Increased plant growth due to increased atmospheric CO₂
b) Increased Earth temperature due to CO₂
c) Increased ocean acidity due to CO₂
d) Biological adaptation to climate change
Q.66) In the context of emerging communication technologies, which term best applies to the described smart-home ecosystem?
a) Border Gateway Protocol
b) Internet of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Virtual Private Network
Q.67) With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
- India is the third largest manufacturer of silicon wafers.
- Solar power tariffs are determined by Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.68) The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the mid-18th century were
a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Q.69) Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
a) All-India participation of professionals
b) Dalit and tribal mass participation
c) Integration of peasant unrest with national movement
d) Decline in plantation crop cultivation
Q.70) Who among the following founded the Hind Mazdoor Sabha (1948)?
a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, K.C. George
b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya, M.N. Roy
c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj, Veeresalingam Pantulu
d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam, G.G. Mehta
Q.71) With reference to religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
a) Buddhism
b) Jainism
c) Vaishnavism
d) Shaivism
Q.72) With reference to Indian architectural history, consider the following statements:
- White marble was used in Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
- Red sandstone and marble were used in Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.73) Which foreign traveller described India’s diamond mines in detail?
a) Francois Bernier
b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
c) Jean de Thevenot
d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Q.74) In Indian history, who is regarded as the future Buddha?
a) Avalokiteshvara
b) Lokesvara
c) Maitreya
d) Padmapani
Q.75) Which statement does NOT apply to the Subsidiary Alliance system of Lord Wellesley?
a) Maintenance of Company troops at Indian rulers’ expense
b) Protection against Napoleonic threat
c) Securing fixed income for the Company
d) Establishment of British paramountcy
Q.76) Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.77) Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Q.78) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It also imparts training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce with the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.79) In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society
Q.80) Which among the following events happened earliest?
a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to clear the ICS Examination
Q.81) Which of the following is/are the possible consequence(s) of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
- Decreased salinity in the river
- Pollution of groundwater
- Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.82) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
- High organic matter content drastically reduces water-holding capacity.
- Soil plays no role in the sulphur cycle.
- Irrigation over time can contribute to salinization of agricultural land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.83) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) emerged at
a) Earth Summit on Sustainable Development, 2002 (Johannesburg)
b) UN Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012 (Rio de Janeiro)
c) UNFCCC Conference, 2015 (Paris)
d) World Sustainable Development Summit, 2016 (New Delhi)
Q.84) “3D Printing” has applications in which of the following?
- Preparation of confectionery items
- Manufacture of bionic ears
- Automotive industry
- Reconstructive surgeries
- Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.85) Consider the following statements:
- Barren Island volcano is an active volcano in Indian territory.
- Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
- It last erupted in 1991 and has remained inactive since.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.86) Why is the plant Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?
a) Used widely in cosmetics
b) Reduces biodiversity in the areas where it grows
c) Used in pesticide synthesis
d) None of the above
Q.87) Consider the following statements:
- Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
- More than one-third of coral reefs are located around Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines.
- Coral reefs host more animal phyla than tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.88) “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative of
a) IPCC
b) UNEP
c) UNFCCC Secretariat
d) WMO
Q.89) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution — Founder
- Sanskrit College at Benaras — William Jones
- Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings
- Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Q.90) Consider the following pairs:
Region — Country
- Catalonia — Spain
- Crimea — Hungary
- Mindanao — Philippines
- Oromia — Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Q.91) Consider the following events:
- First democratically elected communist government in a State
- Imperial Bank renamed as State Bank of India
- Nationalisation of Air India
- Goa became part of India
Which is the correct chronological order?
a) 4–1–2–3
b) 3–2–1–4
c) 4–2–1–3
d) 3–1–2–4
Q.92) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which constitutional provisions imply this?
a) Article 14 and 42nd Amendment
b) Article 17 and Part IV
c) Article 21 and freedoms in Part III
d) Article 24 and 44th Amendment
Q.93) MSP has been announced for which of the following crops?
- Barley
- Finger millet
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.94) Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
Q.95) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs are mainly used for Earth-observation satellites, while GSLVs are used for communication satellites.
- PSLV-launched satellites remain fixed in the sky from Earth.
- GSLV Mk-III is a four-stage vehicle using both solid and liquid engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
Q.96) With reference to governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
- Capital infusion into PSBs has steadily increased in the last decade.
- Associate banks have been merged with State Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.97) Which of the following items are exempted under GST?
- Hulled cereal grains
- Cooked chicken eggs
- Processed and canned fish
- Newspapers containing advertisements
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.98) Consider the following statements:
- “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is defined in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
- Baigas were given Habitat Rights for the first time in India.
- MoEFCC officially declares Habitat Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.99) Which of the following spread plant diseases?
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.100) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
- NPOP is operated under the Ministry of Rural Development.
- APEDA acts as the Secretariat for NPOP.
- Sikkim is India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC CSE Prelims 2018 – GS Paper I KEY : SET-A
Official Answer Key (Consolidated Table)
| Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans | Q.No | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 26 | D | 51 | C | 76 | D |
| 2 | D | 27 | D | 52 | C | 77 | A |
| 3 | C | 28 | A | 53 | B | 78 | C |
| 4 | B | 29 | A | 54 | A | 79 | A |
| 5 | A | 30 | A | 55 | D | 80 | B |
| 6 | C | 31 | C | 56 | C | 81 | B |
| 7 | A | 32 | A | 57 | C | 82 | B |
| 8 | D | 33 | A | 58 | C | 83 | B |
| 9 | C | 34 | C | 59 | C | 84 | D |
| 10 | A | 35 | B | 60 | D | 85 | A |
| 11 | C | 36 | B | 61 | A | 86 | B |
| 12 | D | 37 | B | 62 | D | 87 | D |
| 13 | A | 38 | B | 63 | B | 88 | C |
| 14 | D | 39 | A | 64 | B | 89 | B |
| 15 | C | 40 | B | 65 | A | 90 | C |
| 16 | A | 41 | C | 66 | B | 91 | B |
| 17 | C | 42 | D | 67 | D | 92 | C |
| 18 | D | 43 | C | 68 | D | 93 | B |
| 19 | A | 44 | B | 69 | C | 94 | A |
| 20 | B | 45 | C | 70 | D | 95 | A |
| 21 | B | 46 | B | 71 | B | 96 | B |
| 22 | B | 47 | C | 72 | D | 97 | C |
| 23 | A | 48 | C | 73 | B | 98 | A |
| 24 | B | 49 | C | 74 | C | 99 | D |
| 25 | B | 50 | D | 75 | C | 100 | B |